brett
11-16-2007, 05:20 PM
Let's say Sammy Sosa has a 102 OPS+ in the AL this year.
Is there a way to figure out how he would really have done in the NL?
Are there times when leagues become pitcher dominant or hitter dominant.
For example a pitcher dominant NL might have a hitter with a 140 OPS+ who would be 120 in the AL (because there are more good hitters in the AL).
Conversely a hitter dominated AL might have a pitcher with a 140 ERA+ who would be 120 in the NL because there are more good pitchers.
And if so, isn't it also possible that time periods featured more truly good hitters, or more truly good pitchers?
Perhaps, for example, there simply were more good hitters from 1924-1936 than in the 60s.
Really my question is, is there any way in heck to tell?
Is there a way to figure out how he would really have done in the NL?
Are there times when leagues become pitcher dominant or hitter dominant.
For example a pitcher dominant NL might have a hitter with a 140 OPS+ who would be 120 in the AL (because there are more good hitters in the AL).
Conversely a hitter dominated AL might have a pitcher with a 140 ERA+ who would be 120 in the NL because there are more good pitchers.
And if so, isn't it also possible that time periods featured more truly good hitters, or more truly good pitchers?
Perhaps, for example, there simply were more good hitters from 1924-1936 than in the 60s.
Really my question is, is there any way in heck to tell?