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Crusify_Me
07-10-2007, 10:52 AM
Q: A pitcher pitches in a 9 inning game complete game and strikes-out 27 concecutive batters but yet he still lost the game 1-0

is that possible?

Bigrcube
07-10-2007, 10:59 AM
Q: A pitcher pitches in a 9 inning game complete game and strikes-out 27 concecutive batters but yet he still lost the game 1-0

is that possible?

Ah.....well......of course it is?! Or is this one of those trick questions?

If 1st batter hits a HR, then pitcher K's the remainder, then it COULD happen?!

Ubiquitous
07-10-2007, 10:59 AM
Yes it is possible.

bluezebra
07-10-2007, 11:02 AM
Q: A pitcher pitches in a 9 inning game complete game and strikes-out 27 concecutive batters but yet he still lost the game 1-0

is that possible?

Not even a challenge. Opponent scores a run (could be a leadoff home run, for example) before the first out. Pitcher strikes out the next 27 batters in a row.

Bob

Crusify_Me
07-10-2007, 11:23 AM
aww so quick guys..
ya it was a just a trick question

il post another one

Utter Chaos
07-10-2007, 11:34 AM
It's even possible to face exactly 27 batters, get 27 strikeouts and lose 1-0. (no hits, no walks, no erros, no HBP)

Old Sweater
07-10-2007, 01:13 PM
It's even possible to face exactly 27 batters, get 27 strikeouts and lose 1-0. (no hits, no walks, no erros, no HBP)

Forfeit ?

Utter Chaos
07-10-2007, 01:20 PM
It's even possible to face exactly 27 batters, get 27 strikeouts and lose 1-0. (no hits, no walks, no erros, no HBP)

The pitcher strikes out the side for the first 8 innings (24 strikeouts). In the 9th with no score the pitcher strikes out the first batter (#25), Strikes out the second batter (#26) but the ball gets by the catcher (wild pitch) so the batter gets to first. He then steals 2nd and 3rd. With two strikes on the 27th batter the runner steals home. The pitch is strike three (#27) but the runner is safe and his team wins 1 to 0.

Old Sweater
07-10-2007, 01:56 PM
The pitcher strikes out the side for the first 8 innings (24 strikeouts). In the 9th with no score the pitcher strikes out the first batter (#25), Strikes out the second batter (#26) but the ball gets by the catcher (wild pitch) so the batter gets to first. He then steals 2nd and 3rd. With two strikes on the 27th batter the runner steals home. The pitch is strike three (#27) but the runner is safe and his team wins 1 to 0.

That could only happen in the top of the 9th if the runner beat the pitch home before the recorded 3rd out.

In the bottom of the 9th if the runner beat the pitch home the game would end before the recorded 27th K.

guppster01
07-10-2007, 02:02 PM
Pitcher one starts game, gives up a homerun to first hitter. Pitcher is taken out of the game, the next pitcher throws the perfecto.

Utter Chaos
07-10-2007, 02:06 PM
That could only happen in the top of the 9th if the runner beat the pitch home before the recorded 3rd out.

In the bottom of the 9th if the runner beat the pitch home the game would end before the recorded 27th K.OK, then he runs home after the pitch when the catcher throws it back to the pitcher after the 27th strikeout.

Brian McKenna
07-10-2007, 02:46 PM
Pitcher one starts game, gives up a homerun to first hitter. Pitcher is taken out of the game, the next pitcher throws the perfecto.

I don't think that's a complete game.

Old Sweater
07-10-2007, 03:38 PM
OK, then he runs home after the pitch when the catcher throws it back to the pitcher after the 27th strikeout.

Not if the 27th. k was the 3rd out. Best bet would be another wild pitch followed by a K in the top of 9.

Crusify_Me
07-10-2007, 04:05 PM
this question was posted to trick some people just in case some people misread the question :D

Utter Chaos
07-10-2007, 08:34 PM
Not if the 27th. k was the 3rd out. Best bet would be another wild pitch followed by a K in the top of 9.Reread what I wrote in post #8. On the 26th strikeout the batter reached first because the ball got by the catcher. So the 27th strikeout was only the second out of the inning and when the 26th strikeout victim stole home in the bottom of the 9th the game is over. Home team wins 1 to 0.

bluezebra
07-10-2007, 11:25 PM
Forfeit ?

OBR RULE 2 DEFINITIONS..A FORFEITED GAME is a game declared ended by the umpire in chief in favor of the offended team by the score of 9 to 0, for violation of the rules.

Bob

NJMetfan4life
07-11-2007, 10:21 AM
What about both pitchers are throwing perfect games 27 K's each then in the bottom of the 10th inning a player homers

Brooklyn
07-11-2007, 10:27 AM
A pitcher can strike out 27 consecutive batters in one inning, with the dropped thrid strike. He can do what ever he wants in the other 8 innings, giving up one run, and fit the question (as long as he is the home team, otherwise it would only be an 8 inning complete game)